I read the article, and while I could certainly be misinterpreting things, I don't think the correct conclusion to draw from it is that women experience autogynephilia as described in the original study. I think the correct conclusion to draw is that the methodology (questions) used by the original study are not a good/reliable indicator of the proposed condition, and concordantly the composition of responses to the original survey is not unique to the population as originally suggested.
AFAICT none of the questions specifically address cross-sex or female bodied fantasies, merely stereotypically feminine grooming and attire. I do agree with Reine that the condition, approximately as originally described, is almost certainly present in the CD population (and likely with a fairly high rate of incidence).