Karen, re-examine your previous posting:
Do you see the difference between that and what you just wrote? The first posted says "typically male mind" and the newer says "female mind". You appear to have gotten confused by The Fallacy Of The Excluded Middle: you have set up the logical premise that the only choices are "typically male" and "female", and that no-one can be anything else other than those two things.
If you review my response to you, you will see that no-where in my response did I claim to have a typical
female mind: what I said was that the assessment of professionals is that I do not have a typical mind, and in particular that I do not fit the typical male pattern. If one does not adhere to The Law Of The Excluded Middle when it comes to gender, then that leaves me as at a
minimum being an
atypical male, and quite possibly as being some mix of male and female. In either case, the mind that "the old goat" is "showing off" is not one that is "typically male", what-ever it may be.
If you review my past postings, you will find that I do not identify as either typical male or as TS (and
medical professionals do not consider me to be
either of those): I identify as non-polarized gender-fluid; the
approximate label (if one is going to label at all) would probably be "androgynous"; as, though, I feel that label to have overtones that are not appropriate to me, I usually just shorten it to saying that I am
TG.
What, all of it? Or just some parts of it? For example, are you, in making that statement, making the claim that I was incorrect when I said,
in response to Acadeca saying,
That is, are you claiming that it is true all over the world that in every case where a wife is "straight", that she "needs a masculine man" at least as much as her husband needs to dress? If so, then is your claim evidentially based, or is your claim based upon your personal definition of "straight" -- i.e., that any wife who does
not "need a masculine man" as much as the husband needs to dress, is, de facto, not "straight" ?