Quote Originally Posted by Taylor186 View Post
The article quotes the DSM-4 (originally published in 1994) which is 24 years old and has been superseded by the DSM-5 released in 2013. The DSM-5 references Transvestic Disorder and has no reference whatsoever to Transvestic Fetishism Disorder. The American Psychiatric Association thinking has evolved.
I think it's a distinction without a difference. The DSM-5 does use the term Transvestic Disorder but then lists "with fetishism" and "with autogynephilia" as specifications to go along with the diagnosis. I don't think the thinking has changed in any significant manner, at least in terms of the diagnostic criteria. Perhaps my point is being lost. I'm not making a judgement or value statement on the diagnosis, I'm simply pointing out that it exists as the current standard and the article the original poster linked to is accurate in how it characterizes the current official diagnosis criteria.